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(TV) Fermat and Stockholm Syndrome (semi-OT, question for Swedes)



Now I can spend 7 years in isolation to finish up the demonstration, then
Phil will find a mistake in it, and the chairman of the Television music
department can tell me to throw myself off a tower.

I am only familiar with RL's perspective on music and music theory -- he is
pretty much self-taught,  I think, but one way he said that he approached
"improvisation" when he was younger was to at least not play the "wrong
note" (but that, I have always assume that he meant not to play something
that is dissonant from the rest of the people that he is playing with) -- in
a way, there is a limited number of sounds that you can play in response to
other sons that are harmonious -- if by "classically trained" one means that
certain musicians are trained to often resolve their playing within the
limited number of sounds that are more or less harmonious with the other
sounds being played and that are thought through to effect a certain
emotional impact, I would say that RL is more "classically trained" than TV.

Now off to my completely OT question -- I think we have some Swedish people
on the list, no?  Do Swedish people call the Stockholm Syndrome the
"Stockholm Syndrome"?

> ------------------------------
>
> Date: Fri, 9 Jul 2004 09:55:54 -0400
> From: Maurice Rickard <maurice@mac.com>
> Subject: Re: (TV) Tom Verlaine
>
> At 6:43 AM -0700 7/9/04, Philip P. Obbard wrote:
> >Maurice, when will your 'full' response be published? Next month?
> >
> >:^)
>
> I'm holding out for a publishing deal.  Also, I have discovered a
> truly marvelous demonstration of my propositions that this email is
> too narrow to contain.
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